Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 07:38
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Why did McLaren hope that the Ferrari pair would pit twice during the Italian Grand Prix?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Is it possible for buyers to negotiate after an inspection if the appraisal is lower than expected?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.